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SHRM SHRM-CP: Society for Human Resource Management Certified Professional Certification Path
The SHRM SHRM-CP: Society for Human Resource Management Certified Professional Certification is a SHRM expert certification that focuses mostly on quality control. Before you enter the SHRM SHRM-CP Certification you need to have two full projects in one or more areas of the SHRM Knowledge Body with a firm affidavit or a full project with a signed affidavit and three years of working experience. For more information related to SHRM certification track SHRM-certification-path
What is the duration, language, and format of SHRM SHRM-CP: Society for Human Resource Management Certified Professional Exam
- Language: six Sigma SHRM-CP in English (Computer delivered) offered at a certain location in English, Spanish and Mandarin (Paper and Pencil Based)
- Score passing: > 60 percent
- Duration of the exam: 270 minutes - Question number: 165 (150 questions are scored and 15 are unscored)
- Size: multiple options, multiple responses
- RE Certificate: every three years
How to book SHRM SHRM-CP: Society for Human Resource Management Certified Professional Exams
The SHRM SHRM-CP: Society for Human Resource Management Certified Professional registration follows the stages below:
- Step 1: You may login or setup your account if you first appear for SHRM-CP certification.
- Step 2: Buy SHRM SHRM-CP Exam voucher from the website by using a debit/credit card.
- Step 3: You may choose a test center, the time and the date using Pearson VUE’s platform, and use a voucher code you obtained from the website.
NEW QUESTION 176
How long must an executive order be published in the Federal Register before it becomes law?
- A. 60 days
- B. 30 days
- C. 6 months
- D. 1 year
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: An executive order must be published in the Federal Register for 30 days before it becomes law. Executive orders are proclamations by the President of the United States. They may be challenged in the judicial system.
NEW QUESTION 177
Which of the following statements about the Delphi technique is false?
- A. It allows for a broad range of perspectives.
- B. The participants remain anonymous.
- C. It is a convenient form of qualitative analysis when participants are distant.
- D. It takes place in a single round.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: The Delphi technique requires several rounds of questioning before a consensus is reached. In this method of decisionmaking, a panel of anonymous experts is given a short questionnaire. Their written responses are subjected to another series of questions. This process continues until a consensus is reached. The Delphi technique is good for getting a wide range of honest perspectives, and is convenient when the participants are geographically distant from one another.
NEW QUESTION 178
Which type of strike is launched despite a nostrike clause in the employee contract?
- A. wildcat strike
- B. secondary strike
- C. sitdown strike
- D. hot cargo strike
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: A wildcat strike is launched despite a nostrike clause in the employee contract. Obviously, these strikes create intense conflict between employer and union. Sitdown strikes, which are prohibited by law, occur inside the work facility. Secondary boycotts are attempts by the union to keep an external company from doing business with the employer. In most cases, secondary strikes are illegal. A hot cargo strike, more commonly known as a hot cargo picket, aims to keep the employer from doing business with some other employer opposed by the union. Hot cargo pickets are prohibited by law as well.
NEW QUESTION 179
The National Labor Relations Act (NLRA) does not apply to which types of workers?
- A. Financial
- B. Administrative
- C. Agricultural
- D. Corporate
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: The NLRA specifically does not apply to agricultural workers (among other types of workers - domestic workers, contract employees, federal and state workers, etc.). There is nothing within the NLRA to prevent it from applying to administrative, corporate, or financial employees. Within each of these categories, it might be possible to find a type of worker that fits the NLRA caveat, such as a contract employee or a federal worker, but there is nothing about these other four categories that fails to fall under NLRA.
NEW QUESTION 180
A labor union must deal with several different employers. The union decides to negotiate with the employers one at a time, hoping to achieve successively better deals. What strategy is this union using?
- A. parallel bargaining
- B. integrative bargaining
- C. positional bargaining D.
multiunit bargaining
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: This labor union is using a parallel bargaining strategy. Parallel bargaining is often used when the union believes that one particular employer will agree to an especially favorable deal. By negotiating this deal first, the union can set a standard that other employers will reluctantly meet. In the integrative bargaining approach, the union and employers lay all the facts on the table and compromise. In positional bargaining, the union and the employer are adversaries, each side using its leverage to get as much as possible. In multiunit bargaining, a single employer must deal with multiple unions representing different job groups.
NEW QUESTION 181
The risk areas that the human resources professional is responsible for considering include all of the following except:
- A. Safety and health
- B. Workplace privacy
- C. Business continuity
- D. Labor relations
- E. Legal compliance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: The category of labor relations is not considered to be one of the larger risks that a human resources professional must consider. Compliance with labor relations laws would fall under the category of legal compliance as a whole, but it is not a separate area of risk management. Answer choices A, B, C, and E are all incorrect because they represent distinct areas of risk that a human resources professional must consider.
NEW QUESTION 182
Which type of voluntary benefits plan offers specified tax benefits for employers as well as employees and does not provide extra benefits for shareholders or executives?
- A. Defined contribution
- B. Nonqualified plan
- C. Cash balance
- D. Defined benefit
- E. Qualified plan
Answer: E
Explanation:
Explanation: This question describes the qualified plan, which provides IRSapproved tax advantages but without any extra benefits for shareholders and executives. Answer choice A is incorrect because the nonqualified plan provides benefits to specified employees (i.e., executives) and shareholder. Answer choice B is incorrect because the defined contribution plan utilizes a standard pension plan but without the added benefits defined in advance. Answer choice D is incorrect because the cash balance plan is a combination of the defined benefit and defined contribution plan but does not fall under the immediate grouping of voluntary benefits programs. Answer choice E is incorrect because the defined benefit program starts with a pension plan and adds specified benefits to it.
NEW QUESTION 183
Which of the following of collective bargaining results when both sides acknowledge that they have a strong motivation in the continuity of business activities, and thus proceed in negotiations with this acknowledgement?
- A. Distributive bargaining
- B. Positional bargaining
- C. Interestbased bargaining
- D. Integrative bargaining
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: Interestbased bargaining results when both sides acknowledge that they have a strong motivation in the continuity of business activities, and thus proceed in negotiations with this acknowledgement. Positional bargaining results when each side establishes a clear position and aims to achieve the goal or goals of that position. Integrative bargaining results when the different sides agree to compromise on certain issues by taking the big picture into account. Distributive bargaining is another name for positional bargaining.
NEW QUESTION 184
How old must one be to take a job that has been designated hazardous by the Secretary of Labor?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. There is no age restriction on hazardous employment.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: A person must be at least 18 years old to take a job that has been designated hazardous by the Secretary of Labor. The Fair Labor Standards Act instituted a number of policies to prevent the exploitation of children. The only hazardous jobs children younger than 18 may be allowed to perform are related to farming.
NEW QUESTION 185
Summarize the ruling in Regents of California v. Bakke (1978).
- A. Universities may not use quotas to boost minority admissions.
- B. Employees must be given a reasonable opportunity to reject unfair arbitration clauses.
- C. Arbitration clauses are enforceable even when a business is engaged in interstate commerce.
- D. Nonunion employees are not entitled to Weingarten rights.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: In Regents of California v. Bakke (1978), the Supreme Court ruled that universities may not use quotas to boost minority admissions. This case centered on a white man who was denied admission to medical school twice, though in both years minority students with lower grades and test scores were admitted. The white man, Allan Bakke, claimed reverse discrimination. The Supreme Court declared that it was unconstitutional for the University of California to base minority admissions on a quota, though race could be a factor in admissions decisions.
NEW QUESTION 186
In which case was it determined that employees may not waive Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) rights in a severance agreement?
- A. Smith v. City of Jackson, Mississippi (2005)
- B. Circuit City Stores v. Adams (2001)
- C. Phason v. Meridian Rail Corporation (2007)
- D. Taylor v. Progress Energy, Inc. (2007)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: In Taylor v. Progress Energy, Inc. (2007), the Supreme Court ruled that employees may not waive their Family and Medical Leave Act rights in a severance agreement. Indeed, the ruling states that employees may neither waive nor be induced to waive any of their FMLA rights.
NEW QUESTION 187
An employee's performance on an assembly line is likely to follow a
- A. proportionally accelerating learning curve.
- B. negatively accelerating learning curve.
- C. statically accelerating learning curve.
- D. positively accelerating learning curve.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: An employee's performance on an assembly line is likely to follow a negatively accelerating learning curve. This type of learning curve is typical of rote tasks, which can be learned and indeed mastered in a short time, but which do not permit much improvement after the initial learning. A positively accelerating learning curve, on the other hand, is marked by a slow start followed by a gradually increasing speed of learning. A positively accelerating learning curve is typical of complex tasks, which are difficult at first but which may be improved upon over a long interval.
NEW QUESTION 188
The term zero defects, as an ideal performance standard, was developed by which individual?
- A. Juran
- B. Deming
- C. Crosby
- D. Ishikawa
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: Philip B.
Crosby is responsible for the term zero defects, as it relates to an ideal performance standard for businesses.
W.Edwards Deming began the quality movement (of the 1940s) by focusing on the consumer for improving business standards. Joseph M.
Juran followed Deming with a similar focus on quality. Dr. Kaoru Ishikawa is credited with applying data analysis tools to company activities with the goal of quality improvement.
NEW QUESTION 189
The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) retains a certification of age for all employees for how long?
- A. Until employee termination
- B. 3 years
- C. 2 years
- D. 5 years
- E. 1 year
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: The Fair Labor Standards Act requires that companies maintain a certification of age on file for all employees until their employment is terminated. The certification of age simply shows that the employee can legally work for the company in the capacity in which he or she was hired. Once the employment has been terminated, it is no longer necessary to maintain a certification of age. Answer choices A, B, C, and D all represents time periods that could be true depending on the time that an employee is with a company, but they are not technically correct based on the wording of the law.
NEW QUESTION 190
Which of the following OSHA forms is intended to be an Injury and Illness Incident Report?
- A. OSHA Form 301A
- B. OSHA Form 300
- C. OSHA Form 300A
- D. OSHA Form 301
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: OSHA Form 301 is intended to be an Injury and Illness Incident Report. OSHA Form 300 is intended to be a Log of WorkRelated Injuries and Illnesses. OSHA Form 300A is intended to be a Summary of WorkRelated Injuries and Illnesses. OSHA Form 301A does not exist.
NEW QUESTION 191
The EEO1 filing applies to all types of employers except which of the following?
- A. Administrative
- B. Banking
- C. Education
- D. Construction
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: Private employers within all forms of major educational institutions (primary, secondary, and postsecondary) are excluded from having to complete EEO1 filings. Private employers who fall within the areas of administration, banking, or construction, and have 100 employees or more, must complete the report.
NEW QUESTION 192
The orientation program at Company X is considered very intense. New employees are given a crash course in organizational philosophy, and are discouraged from voicing their opinions or concerns. Which type of people processing strategy is Company X using?
- A. investiture
- B. divestiture
- C. collective
- D. contest
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: Company X is using a divestiture people processing strategy. This type of strategy aims to reduce the influence of personal characteristics on the organization. Military institutions typically employ a divestiture people processing strategy, with the aim of making individual soldiers subservient to the imperatives of the group. Investiture people processing strategies, on the other hand, give new employees a chance to express themselves and apply their personal idiosyncrasies to the organization. Contest people processing strategies do not sort new employees by interest or ability; instead, they put every new employee through the same program, and make decisions about placement once orientation is complete. Finally, collective people processing strategies emphasize cooperation between new employees.
NEW QUESTION 193
Which of the following is identified as a "designation notice" to inform employees about FMLA requirements for factors such as a required medical certification or a required fitnessforduty certification?
- A. WH383
- B. WH382
- C. WH381
- D. WH380
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: Form WH382 is identified as a "designation notice" to inform employees about FMLA requirements for factors such as a required medical certification or a required fitnessforduty certification. Form WH381 is identified as the "eligibility, rights, and responsibilities notice" for employees regarding FMLA. The other answer choices do not reflect significant FMLA forms.
NEW QUESTION 194
Which of the following is a primary reason for the failure of total quality management programs?
- A. Inability to identify the advantages of change
- B. Micromanaging by employees at all levels of the organizational hierarchy
- C. Overemphasis on core objectives
- D. Failure to use ISO 9000 standards
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: Inability to identify the advantages of change is a primary reason for the failure of total quality management programs. If managers are unable to convey the intended benefits of a new program, employees are less likely to comply with the new standards and regulations. Micromanagement by employees at all levels is a common characteristic of total quality management programs during the implementation phase. These programs are comprehensive, and require the participation of employees at all levels. Total quality management experts would deny that it is possible to overemphasize core objectives, since TQM depends on isolation of key production components and constant attention to improvement. Finally, failure to use ISO 9000 standards does not cause TQM efforts to fail, since there are a number of other standard systems available. Indeed, many industries have special standards that are more appropriate.
NEW QUESTION 195
Jocelyn has the responsibility of interviewing the candidates who have applied for an open position as a mechanic in an auto repair shop. As she meets and interviews the various candidates, she is not pleased with the potential employees that she encounters during this interview. One of the candidates, however, is a strongly built young woman with a tough demeanor. Despite this woman's limited resume and experience, Jocelyn decides that this particular candidate is the best employee choice because her appearance fits the image that the auto repair shop will need. In this, Jocelyn is demonstrating which of the following interview biases?
- A. First impression
- B. Similartome
- C. Recency
- D. Stereotyping
- E. Gut feeling
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: In this case, Jocelyn is allowing a stereotyping bias (how she perceives a female mechanic) to guide her decision about which candidate will be best for the position in the auto repair shop. Answer choice B is incorrect because a similartome bias occurs when the interviewer is influenced by similar interests or a similar background in the candidate. Answer choice C is incorrect because a recency bias occurs when the interviewer compares a candidate to the previously interviewed candidate. Answer choice D is incorrect because a first impression bias happens when an immediate impression of a candidate determines a decision. And answer choice E is incorrect because a gut feeling bias relies on a preference or intuition to make a decision about a candidate.
NEW QUESTION 196
Administrative laws, such as agency rules and regulations, take effect how many days after being published in the Federal Register?
- A. 60 days
- B. 30 days
- C. 45 days
- D. 15 days
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: Administrative laws take effect 30 days after being published in the Federal Register. The option for 15 days is far too short, and the options for 45 days and 60 days reflect a time frame in which the law would already have taken effect.
NEW QUESTION 197
A human resources professional is putting together a training session, during which employees will be expected to complete a number of small group activities. What type of seating would be most effective for this training session?
- A. Chevron
- B. Banquet
- C. Classroom
- D. Theater
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: Banquetstyle seating, in which groups of employees will be arranged at tables, is best for a training session with small group activities. Classroomstyle seating is best if the employees will simply be facing the front of a room and listening to a speaker. Chevronstyle seating is best for a combination of activities that include video presentations and group interaction. Theaterstyle seating accommodates the largest number of people and also works well for various presentations.
NEW QUESTION 198
The Latin phrase respondeat superior translates to which of the following?
- A. Friend of the court
- B. With connected strength
- C. Thrown to the lions
- D. Let the master answer
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: The Latin phrase respondeat superior translates to mean "let the master answer" and suggests that companies have a measure of responsibility for employee actions, if employee actions result from job responsibilities. The phrase "friend of the court" comes from the Latin amicus curiae. The phrase "with connected strength" comes from the Latin coniunctis viribus. The phrase "thrown to the lions" comes from the Latin damnatio ad bestias.
NEW QUESTION 199
The Age Discrimination in Employment Act requires that any employee records related to charges of discrimination must be retained
- A. for two years or until the charges are resolved, whichever comes first.
- B. for seven years.
- C. for one year.
- D. until the charges are resolved.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: The Age Discrimination in Employment Act requires that any employee records related to charges of discrimination must be retained until the charges are resolved. Once the charges are resolved, records may be expunged. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act was passed with the intention of helping older people find jobs. It required businesses to declare any reasons for failing to hire older workers at an appropriate rate.
NEW QUESTION 200
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