[2024] New SY0-701 exam Free Sample Questions to Practice
Cover Real SY0-701 Exam Questions Make Sure You 100% Pass
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following can best protect against an employee inadvertently installing malware on a company system?
- A. Least privilege
- B. Host-based firewall
- C. System isolation
- D. Application allow list
Answer: D
Explanation:
An application allow list is a security technique that specifies which applications are authorized to run on a system and blocks all other applications. An application allow list can best protect against an employee inadvertently installing malware on a company system because it prevents the execution of any unauthorized or malicious software, such as viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware, or spyware. An application allow list can also reduce the attack surface and improve the performance of the system. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 11: Secure Application Development, page 551 1
NEW QUESTION # 34
An enterprise is trying to limit outbound DNS traffic originating from its internal network. Outbound DNS requests will only be allowed from one device with the IP address 10.50.10.25. Which of the following firewall ACLs will accomplish this goal?
- A. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 10.50.10.25 32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
- B. Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25 32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0/0 port 53
- C. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25 32 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
- D. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25 32 port 53
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because it allows only the device with the IP address 10.50.10.25 to send outbound DNS requests on port 53, and denies all other devices from doing so. The other options are incorrect because they either allow all devices to send outbound DNS requests (A and C), or they allow no devices to send outbound DNS requests (B). Reference = You can learn more about firewall ACLs and DNS in the following resources:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4: Network Security1 Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 3.2: Firewall Rules2 TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 6: Network Security, Lecture 28: Firewall Rules3
NEW QUESTION # 35
A security manager created new documentation to use in response to various types of security incidents.
Which of the following is the next step the manager should take?
- A. Securely store the documents on an air-gapped network.
- B. Set the maximum data retention policy.
- C. Conduct a tabletop exercise with the team.
- D. Review the documents' data classification policy.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the effectiveness of a security incident response plan. It involves gathering the relevant stakeholders and walking through the steps of the plan, identifying any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. A tabletop exercise is a good way to validate the documentation created by the security manager and ensure that the team is prepared for various types of security incidents.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6: Risk Management, page 2841. CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 6: Risk Management, page 2842.
NEW QUESTION # 36
A company is discarding a classified storage array and hires an outside vendor to complete the disposal.
Which of the following should the company request from the vendor?
- A. Proof of ownership
- B. Classification
- C. Inventory list
- D. Certification
Answer: D
Explanation:
The company should request a certification from the vendor that confirms the storage array has been disposed of securely and in compliance with the company's policies and standards. A certification provides evidence that the vendor has followed the proper procedures and methods to destroy the classified data and prevent unauthorized access or recovery. A certification may also include details such as the date, time, location, and method of disposal, as well as the names and signatures of the personnel involved. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3, page 1441
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following scenarios describes a possible business email compromise attack?
- A. An employee receives an email with a link to a phishing site that is designed to look like the company's email portal.
- B. Employees who open an email attachment receive messages demanding payment in order to access files.
- C. A service desk employee receives an email from the HR director asking for log-in credentials to a cloud administrator account.
- D. An employee receives a gift card request in an email that has an executive's name in the display field of the email.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A business email compromise (BEC) attack is a type of phishing attack that targets employees who have access to company funds or sensitive information. The attacker impersonates a trusted person, such as an executive, a vendor, or a client, and requests a fraudulent payment, a wire transfer, or confidential data. The attacker often uses social engineering techniques, such as urgency, pressure, or familiarity, to convince the victim to comply with the request12.
In this scenario, option A describes a possible BEC attack, where an employee receives a gift card request in an email that has an executive's name in the display field of the email. The email may look like it is coming from the executive, but the actual email address may be spoofed or compromised. The attacker may claim that the gift cards are needed for a business purpose, such as rewarding employees or clients, and ask theemployee to purchase them and send the codes. This is a common tactic used by BEC attackers to steal money from unsuspecting victims34.
Option B describes a possible ransomware attack, where malicious software encrypts the files on a device and demands a ransom for the decryption key. Option C describes a possible credential harvesting attack, where an attacker tries to obtain the login information of a privileged account by posing as a legitimate authority. Option D describes a possible phishing attack, where an attacker tries to lure the victim to a fake website that mimics the company's email portal and capture their credentials. These are all types of cyberattacks, but they are not examples of BEC attacks. References = 1: Business Email Compromise - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 -
2.2 2: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide 3: Business Email Compromise: The 12 Billion Dollar Scam 4: TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy
NEW QUESTION # 38
A technician needs to apply a high-priority patch to a production system. Which of the following steps should be taken first?
- A. Air gap the system.
- B. Apply the patch to the system.
- C. Move the system to a different network segment.
- D. Create a change control request.
Answer: D
Explanation:
= A change control request is a document that describes the proposed change to a system, the reason for the change, the expected impact, the approval process, the testing plan, the implementation plan, the rollback plan, and the communication plan. A change control request is a best practice for applying any patch to a production system, especially a high-priority one, as it ensures that the change is authorized, documented, tested, and communicated. A change control request also minimizes the risk of unintended consequences, such as system downtime, data loss, or security breaches. Reference = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6, page 235. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.1, page 13.
NEW QUESTION # 39
After a recent ransomware attack on a company's system, an administrator reviewed the log files. Which of the following control types did the administrator use?
- A. Compensating
- B. Preventive
- C. Detective
- D. Corrective
Answer: C
Explanation:
Detective controls are security measures that are designed to identify and monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or network. They can help to discover the source, scope, and impact of an attack, and provide evidence for further analysis or investigation. Detective controls include log files, security audits, intrusion detection systems, network monitoring tools, and antivirus software. In this case, the administrator used log files as a detective control to review the ransomware attack on the company's system. Log files are records of events and activities that occur on a system or network, such as user actions, system errors, network traffic, and security alerts. They can provide valuable information for troubleshooting, auditing, and forensics.
References:
Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under "About the exam", bullet point 3:
"Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance." CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14: "Detective controls are designed to identify and monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or network." Control Types - CompTIA Security+ SY0-401: 2.1 - Professor Messer IT ..., under "Detective Controls": "Detective controls are security measures that are designed to identify and monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or network."
NEW QUESTION # 40
A company is working with a vendor to perform a penetration test Which of the following includes an estimate about the number of hours required to complete the engagement?
- A. SLA
- B. BPA
- C. SOW
- D. NDA
Answer: C
Explanation:
A statement of work (SOW) is a document that defines the scope, objectives, deliverables, timeline, and costs of a project or service. It typically includes an estimate of the number of hours required to complete the engagement, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the parties involved. A SOW is often used for penetration testing projects to ensure that both the client and the vendor have a clear and mutual understanding of what is expected and how the work will be performed. A business partnership agreement (BPA), a service level agreement (SLA), and a non-disclosure agreement (NDA) are different types of contracts that may be related to a penetration testing project, but they do not include an estimate of the number of hours required to complete the engagement. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page
492; What to Look For in a Penetration Testing Statement of Work?
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to use large financial resources to attack critical systems located in other countries?
- A. Nation-state
- B. Unskilled attacker
- C. Hacktivist
- D. Insider
Answer: A
Explanation:
A nation-state is a threat actor that is sponsored by a government or a political entity to conduct cyberattacks against other countries or organizations. Nation-states have large financial resources, advanced technical skills, and strategic objectives that may target critical systems such as military, energy, or infrastructure. Nation-states are often motivated by espionage, sabotage, or warfare12. Reference = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 542: Threat Actors - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.1, video by Professor Messer.
NEW QUESTION # 42
An administrator notices that several users are logging in from suspicious IP addresses. After speaking with the users, the administrator determines that the employees were not logging in from those IP addresses and resets the affected users' passwords. Which of the following should the administrator implement to prevent this type of attack from succeeding in the future?
- A. Permissions assignment
- B. Password complexity
- C. Multifactor authentication
- D. Access management
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is A because multifactor authentication (MFA) is a method of verifying a user's identity by requiring more than one factor, such as something the user knows (e.g., password), something the user has (e.g., token), or something the user is (e.g., biometric). MFA can prevent unauthorized access even if the user's password is compromised, as the attacker would need to provide another factor to log in. The other options are incorrect because they do not address the root cause of the attack, which is weak authentication.
Permissions assignment (B) is the process of granting or denying access to resources based on the user's role or identity. Access management is the process of controlling who can access what and under what conditions. Password complexity (D) is the requirement of using strong passwords that are hard to guess or crack, but it does not prevent an attacker from using a stolen password. References = You can learn more about multifactor authentication and other security concepts in the following resources:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts1 Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.2: Security Concepts2 Multi-factor Authentication - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.43 TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 3: Identity and Access Management, Lecture 15: Multifactor Authentication4 CompTIA Security+ Certification SY0-601: The Total Course [Video], Chapter 3: Identity and Account Management, Section 2: Enabling Multifactor Authentication5
NEW QUESTION # 43
An administrator assists the legal and compliance team with ensuring information about customer transactions is archived for the proper time period. Which of the following data policies is the administrator carrying out?
- A. Inventory
- B. Retention
- C. Transfer
- D. Analysis
- E. Compromise
Answer: B
Explanation:
A data retention policy is a set of rules that defines how long data should be stored and when it should be deleted or archived. An administrator assists the legal and compliance team with ensuring information about customer transactions is archived for the proper time period by following the data retention policy of the organization. This policy helps the organization to comply with legal and regulatory requirements, optimize storage space, and protect data privacy and security.
References
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.4, page 1211 CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3, Question 15, page 832
NEW QUESTION # 44
A security analyst and the management team are reviewing the organizational performance of a recent phishing campaign. The user click-through rate exceeded the acceptable risk threshold, and the management team wants to reduce the impact when a user clicks on a link in a phishing message. Which of the following should the analyst do?
- A. Update the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs.
- B. Place posters around the office to raise awareness of common phishing activities.
- C. Create additional training for users to recognize the signs of phishing attempts.
- D. Implement email security filters to prevent phishing emails from being delivered
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
An endpoint detection and response (EDR) system is a security tool that monitors and analyzes the activities and behaviors of endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, and servers. An EDR system can detect, prevent, and respond to various types of threats, such as malware, ransomware, phishing, and advanced persistent threats (APTs). One of the features of an EDR system is to block the automatic execution of downloaded programs, which can prevent malicious code from running on the endpoint when a user clicks on a link in a phishing message. This can reduce the impact of a phishing attack and protect the endpoint from compromise. Updating the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs is a technical control that can mitigate the risk of phishing, regardless of the user's awareness or behavior. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options.
The other options are not as effective as updating the EDR policies, because they rely on administrative or physical controls that may not be sufficient to prevent or stop a phishing attack. Placing posters around the office to raise awareness of common phishing activities is a physical control that can increase the user's knowledge of phishing, but it may not change their behavior or prevent them from clicking on a link in a phishing message. Implementing email security filters to prevent phishing emails from being delivered is an administrative control that can reduce the exposure to phishing, but it may not be able to block all phishing emails, especially if they are crafted to bypass the filters. Creating additional training for users to recognize the signs of phishing attempts is an administrative control that can improve the user's skills of phishing detection, but it may not guarantee that they will always be vigilant or cautious when receiving an email. Therefore, these options are not the best answer for this question. References = Endpoint Detection and Response - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.2, video at 5:30; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 163.
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following is a hardware-specific vulnerability?
- A. SQL injection
- B. Cross-site scripting
- C. Buffer overflow
- D. Firmware version
Answer: D
Explanation:
Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in a hardware device, such as a router, a printer, or a BIOS chip. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and it can be updated or modified by the manufacturer or the user. Firmware version is a hardware-specific vulnerability, as it can expose the device to security risks if it is outdated, corrupted, or tampered with. An attacker can exploit firmware vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access, modify device settings, install malware, or cause damage to the device or the network. Therefore, it is important to keep firmware updated and verify its integrity and authenticity. Reference = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 67. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.1, page 10.
NEW QUESTION # 46
The management team notices that new accounts that are set up manually do not always have correct access or permissions.
Which of the following automation techniques should a systems administrator use to streamline account creation?
- A. Escalation script
- B. Ticketing workflow
- C. Guard rail script
- D. User provisioning script
Answer: D
Explanation:
A user provisioning script is an automation technique that uses a predefined set of instructions or commands to create, modify, or delete user accounts and assign appropriate access or permissions. A user provisioning script can help to streamline account creation by reducing manual errors, ensuring consistency and compliance, and saving time and resources12.
The other options are not automation techniques that can streamline account creation:
Guard rail script: This is a script that monitors and enforces the security policies and rules on a system or a network. A guard rail script can help to prevent unauthorized or malicious actions, such as changing security settings, accessing restricted resources, or installing unwanted software3.
Ticketing workflow: This is a process that tracks and manages the requests, issues, or incidents that are reported by users or customers. A ticketing workflow can help to improve the communication, collaboration, and resolution of problems, but it does not automate the account creation process4.
Escalation script: This is a script that triggers an alert or a notification when a certain condition or threshold is met or exceeded. An escalation script can help to inform the relevant parties or authorities of a critical situation, such as a security breach, a performance degradation, or a service outage.
Reference = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1022: User Provisioning - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 5.1, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1034: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 104. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 105.
NEW QUESTION # 47
After a recent vulnerability scan, a security engineer needs to harden the routers within the corporate network.
Which of the following is the most appropriate to disable?
- A. Console access
- B. Web-based administration
- C. Routing protocols
- D. VLANs
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Web-based administration is a feature that allows users to configure and manage routers through a web browser interface. While this feature can provide convenience and ease of use, it can also pose a security risk, especially if the web interface is exposed to the internet or uses weak authentication or encryption methods.
Web-based administration can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access to the router's settings, firmware, or data, or to launch attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS) or cross-site request forgery (CSRF).
Therefore, disabling web-based administration is a good practice to harden the routers within the corporate network. Console access, routing protocols, and VLANs are other features that can be configured on routers, but they are not the most appropriate to disable for hardening purposes. Console access is a physical connection to the router that requires direct access to the device, which can be secured by locking the router in a cabinet or using a strong password. Routing protocols are essential for routers to exchange routing information and maintain network connectivity, and they can be secured by using authentication or encryption mechanisms. VLANs are logical segments of a network that can enhance network performance and security by isolating traffic and devices, and they can be secured by using VLAN access control lists (VACLs) or private VLANs (PVLANs). References: CCNA SEC: Router Hardening Your Router's Security Stinks: Here's How to Fix It
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following is the most likely to be used to document risks, responsible parties, and thresholds?
- A. Risk register
- B. Risk analysis
- C. Risk transfer
- D. Risk tolerance
Answer: A
Explanation:
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the risks associated with a project, system, or organization. A risk register typically includes information such as the risk description, the risk owner, the risk probability, the risk impact, the risk level, the risk response strategy, and the risk status. A risk register can help identify, assess, prioritize, monitor, and control risks, as well as communicate them to relevant stakeholders. A risk register can also help document the risk tolerance and thresholds of an organization, which are the acceptable levels of risk exposure and the criteria for escalating or mitigating risks. Reference = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1: Explain the importance of policies, plans, and procedures related to organizational security. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 5: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 211. CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Chapter 2: Risk Management, page 33. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 4.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following factors are the most important to address when formulating a training curriculum plan for a security awareness program? (Select two).
- A. Cadence and duration of training events
- B. Secure software development training for all personnel
- C. Retraining requirements for individuals who fail phishing simulations
- D. Channels by which the organization communicates with customers
- E. Threat vectors based on the industry in which the organization operates
- F. The reporting mechanisms for ethics violations
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
A training curriculum plan for a security awareness program should address the following factors:
The threat vectors based on the industry in which the organization operates. This will help the employees to understand the specific risks and challenges that their organization faces, and how to protect themselves and the organization from cyberattacks. Forexample, a healthcare organization may face different threat vectors than a financial organization, such as ransomware, data breaches, or medical device hacking1.
The cadence and duration of training events. This will help the employees to retain the information and skills they learn, and to keep up with the changing security landscape. The training events should be frequent enough to reinforce the key concepts and behaviors, but not too long or too short to lose the attention or interest of the employees. For example, a security awareness program may include monthly newsletters, quarterly webinars, annual workshops, or periodic quizzes2.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 34; CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, page 55.
NEW QUESTION # 50
Several employees received a fraudulent text message from someone claiming to be the Chief Executive Officer (CEO). The message stated:
"I'm in an airport right now with no access to email. I need you to buy gift cards for employee recognition awards. Please send the gift cards to following email address." Which of the following are the best responses to this situation? (Choose two).
- A. Conduct a forensic investigation on the CEO's phone.
- B. Implement mobile device management.
- C. Have the CEO change phone numbers.
- D. Add a smishing exercise to the annual company training.
- E. Issue a general email warning to the company.
- F. Cancel current employee recognition gift cards.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
This situation is an example of smishing, which is a type of phishing that uses text messages (SMS) to entice individuals into providing personal or sensitive information to cybercriminals. The best responses to this situation are to add a smishing exercise to the annual company training and to issue a general email warning to the company. A smishing exercise can help raise awareness and educate employees on how to recognize and avoid smishing attacks. An email warning can alert employees to the fraudulent text message and remind them to verify the identity and legitimacy of any requests for information or money. Reference = What Is Phishing | Cybersecurity | CompTIA, Phishing - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.1 - Professor Messer IT Certification Training Courses
NEW QUESTION # 51
After a company was compromised, customers initiated a lawsuit. The company's attorneys have requested that the security team initiate a legal hold in response to the lawsuit. Which of the following describes the action the security team will most likely be required to take?
- A. Retain the emails between the security team and affected customers for 30 days.
- B. Retain any communications related to the security breach until further notice.
- C. Retain all emails from the company to affected customers for an indefinite period of time.
- D. Retain any communications between security members during the breach response.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A legal hold (also known as a litigation hold) is a notification sent from an organization's legal team to employees instructing them not to delete electronically stored information (ESI) or discard paper documents that may be relevant to a new or imminent legal case. A legal hold is intended to preserve evidence and prevent spoliation, which is the intentional or negligent destruction of evidence that could harm a party's case. A legal hold can be triggered by various events, such as a lawsuit, a regulatory investigation, or a subpoena12 In this scenario, the company's attorneys have requested that the security team initiate a legal hold in response to the lawsuit filed by the customers after the company was compromised. This means that the security team will most likely be required to retain any communications related to the security breach until further notice.
This could include emails, instant messages, reports, logs, memos, or any other documents that could be relevant to the lawsuit. The security team should also inform the relevantcustodians (the employees who have access to or control over the ESI) of their preservation obligations and monitor their compliance. The security team should also document the legal hold process and its scope, as well as take steps to protect the ESI from alteration, deletion, or loss34 References:
1: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6: Risk Management, page 303 2:
CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 6: Risk Management, page 305 3:
Legal Hold (Litigation Hold) - The Basics of E-Discovery - Exterro 5 4: The Legal Implications and Consequences of a Data Breach 6
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following factors are the most important to address when formulating a training curriculum plan for a security awareness program? (Select two).
- A. Cadence and duration of training events
- B. Secure software development training for all personnel
- C. Retraining requirements for individuals who fail phishing simulations
- D. Channels by which the organization communicates with customers
- E. Threat vectors based on the industry in which the organization operates
- F. The reporting mechanisms for ethics violations
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Explanation
A training curriculum plan for a security awareness program should address the following factors:
The threat vectors based on the industry in which the organization operates. This will help the employees to understand the specific risks and challenges that their organization faces, and how to protect themselves and the organization from cyberattacks. For example, a healthcare organization may face different threat vectors than a financial organization, such as ransomware, data breaches, or medical device hacking1.
The cadence and duration of training events. This will help the employees to retain the information and skills they learn, and to keep up with the changing security landscape. The training events should be frequent enough to reinforce the key concepts and behaviors, but not too long or too short to lose the attention or interest of the employees. For example, a security awareness program may include monthly newsletters, quarterly webinars, annual workshops, or periodic quizzes2.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 34; CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, page 55.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following is a hardware-specific vulnerability?
- A. SQL injection
- B. Cross-site scripting
- C. Buffer overflow
- D. Firmware version
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in a hardware device, such as a router, a printer, or a BIOS chip. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and it can be updated or modified by the manufacturer or the user. Firmware version is a hardware-specific vulnerability, as it can expose the device to security risks if it is outdated, corrupted, or tampered with. An attacker can exploit firmware vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access, modify device settings, install malware, or cause damage to the device or the network. Therefore, it is important to keep firmware updated and verify its integrity and authenticity. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 67. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.1, page
10.
NEW QUESTION # 54
A data administrator is configuring authentication for a SaaS application and would like to reduce the number of credentials employees need to maintain. The company prefers to use domain credentials to access new SaaS applications. Which of the following methods would allow this functionality?
- A. LEAP
- B. SSO
- C. MFA
- D. PEAP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
SSO stands for single sign-on, which is a method of authentication that allows users to access multiple applications or services with one set of credentials. SSO reduces the number of credentials employees need to maintain and simplifies the login process. SSO can also improve security by reducing the risk of password reuse, phishing, and credential theft. SSO can be implemented using various protocols, such as SAML, OAuth, OpenID Connect, and Kerberos, that enable the exchange of authentication information between different domains or systems. SSO is commonly used for accessing SaaS applications, such as Office 365, Google Workspace, Salesforce, and others, using domain credentials123.
B: LEAP stands for Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol, which is a Cisco proprietary protocol that provides authentication for wireless networks. LEAP is not related to SaaS applications or domain credentials4.
C: MFA stands for multi-factor authentication, which is a method of authentication that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to prove their identity. MFA can enhance security by adding an extra layer of protection beyond passwords, such as tokens, biometrics, or codes. MFA is not related to SaaS applications or domain credentials, but it can be used in conjunction with SSO.
D: PEAP stands for Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol, which is a protocol that provides secure authentication for wireless networks. PEAP uses TLS to create an encrypted tunnel between the client and the server, and then uses another authentication method, such as MS-CHAPv2 or EAP-GTC, to verify the user's identity. PEAP is not related to SaaS applications or domain credentials.
References = 1: Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Study Guide | CompTIA IT Certifications 2: What is Single Sign-On (SSO)? - Definition from WhatIs.com 3: Single sign-on - Wikipedia 4: Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol - Wikipedia : What is Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)? - Definition from WhatIs.com : Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol - Wikipedia
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following is themostlikely to be included as an element of communication in a security awareness program?
- A. Detecting insider threats using anomalous behavior recognition
- B. Reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities
- C. Performing social engineering as part of third-party penetration testing
- D. Verifying information when modifying wire transfer data
Answer: B
Explanation:
A security awareness program is a set of activities and initiatives that aim to educate and inform the users and employees of an organization about the security policies, procedures, and best practices. A security awareness program can help to reduce the human factor in security risks, such as social engineering, phishing, malware, data breaches, and insider threats. A security awareness program should include various elements of communication, such as newsletters, posters, videos, webinars, quizzes, games, simulations, and feedback mechanisms, to deliver the security messages and reinforce the security culture. One of the most likely elements of communication to be included in a security awareness program is reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities, as this can help to raise the awareness of the users and employees about the common types of cyberattacks and how to respond to them. Reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities can also help to alert the security team and enable them to take appropriate actions to prevent or mitigate the impact of the attacks. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options.
The other options are not as likely to be included as elements of communication in a security awareness program, because they are either technical or operational tasks that are not directly related to the security awareness of the users and employees. Detecting insider threats using anomalous behavior recognition is a technical task that involves using security tools or systems to monitor and analyze theactivities and behaviors of the users and employees and identify any deviations or anomalies that may indicate malicious or unauthorized actions. This task is usually performed by the security team or the security operations center, and it does not require the communication or participation of the users and employees. Verifying information when modifying wire transfer data is an operational task that involves using verification methods, such as phone calls, emails, or digital signatures, to confirm the authenticity and accuracy of the information related to wire transfers, such as the account number, the amount, or the recipient. This task is usually performed by the financial or accounting department, and it does not involve the security awareness of the users and employees.
Performing social engineering as part of third-party penetration testing is a technical task that involves using deception or manipulation techniques, such as phishing, vishing, or impersonation, to test the security posture and the vulnerability of the users and employees to social engineering attacks. This task is usually performed by external security professionals or consultants, and it does not require the communication or consent of the users and employees. Therefore, these options are not the best answer for this question. References = Security Awareness and Training - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 5.2, video at 0:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 263.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following tools can assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer's PII?
- A. Net Flow
- B. SCAP
- C. Antivirus
- D. DLP
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention, which is a tool that can assist with detecting and preventing the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data, such as a customer's PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can monitor, filter, and block data in motion (such as emails), data at rest (such as files), and data in use (such as applications). DLP can also alert the sender, the recipient, or the administrator of the data breach, and apply remediation actions, such as encryption, quarantine, or deletion. DLP can help an organization comply with data protection regulations, such as GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI DSS, and protect its reputation and assets. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions:
Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 78. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.5, page 11.
NEW QUESTION # 57
......
Real SY0-701 Quesions Pass Certification Exams Easily: https://www.testkingpass.com/SY0-701-testking-dumps.html
SY0-701 dumps Accurate Questions and Answers with Free: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1vSXbLy-CNKsfEWx4pGoouUcqEnW30nSW